I want to buy a property but confused with the power and sale deed done by the leaser. Let us suppose
1- mr. Aa got the property leased by kda.
2- then mr. Aa issues power to mr. Pp.
3- then mr. Aa sold the property via sale deed to mr. Kk
4- then mr. Kk sold the property via sale deed to mr. Mm
5- now i am going to buy property from mr. Mm
Notice point 2 and 3. Mr. Aa issues power to mr. Pp and then again mr. Aa sales the property to mr. Kk which in my opinion he does not have rights to do so.
Now in the papers there is no evidence of revoking of the power to mr. Pp and there is no mutation of this property.
To me it looks like there are two owners (mm and pp) or some issue.
The lawyer who did the last sale deed from kk to mm is suggesting to do mutation. Doing so will ensure mr. Mm is the right owner of the property.
Is it correct? Will doing mutation of the property by mr. Mm ensure he is the right owner?
